Brethren Archive
The Year 1961

The Epistle to the Ephesians

by F.F. Bruce

144 pages.

This item is still under copyright until 2060 so can not be published at the present time. The item may be available on request, and snippets will appear on the search page.



Comments:
Moses George said ...
Please share a copy through email @ cdrmoses@icloud.com
Kind regards,
Moses
Wednesday, Jan 26, 2022 : 01:56
HOE SANG said ...
Dear brother

May I get a copy of "epistle to the Ephesians" written by FF Bruce?

My email address is
hoesang@gmail.com
Friday, Apr 29, 2022 : 18:17
Christian. said ...
Dear Sir or Madam;

Could you please, if possible, tell me how F.F. Bruce interpreted the Greek word 'paraplesios' in Hebrews 2:14 ? Did F.F. Bruce believe that Jesus fully shared in OUR (fallen) human nature, but uniquely, did not commit any actual sin, whilst in that human nature (cf. Hebrews 4:15).
Any help will be greatly appreciated.
Yours cordially,
Christian.
Saturday, Aug 27, 2022 : 00:48
Beloved said ...
Dear Sir/Madam

I would like to request a copy of "Epistle to the Ephesians" by F.F Bruce.

Kindly send it to the address provided.
Regards.
Wednesday, Oct 12, 2022 : 15:43
Syd said ...
Dear Christian.
I haven't read FF Bruce’s interpretation, so I can't help you with that, but I can assure you that he would NOT agree with “that Jesus fully shared in OUR (fallen) human nature, but uniquely, did not commit any actual sin, whilst in that human nature.” That is totally contrary to what Scripture states.

Besides the interpretation of that Heb 2:14 passage, and the word “paraplesios,” it’s best to see what the Bible says about the perfect Humanity of the Lord Jesus Christ. In Him was NO SIN (1 John 3:5); He knew NO SIN (2 Cor 5:21); He did NO SIN (2 Pet 2:22). We read also that He is holy, harmless, undefiled, separate from sinners, and made higher than the heavens (Heb 7:26). That "separate from sinners" (meaning separated from sinners) confirms that in no manner could He partake of OUR human nature (which of course was sinful).

Importantly, He was God manifest in the flesh (read 1 Tim 3:16). God, the Son (existing from all eternity), took on flesh; a human nature, but of course unique to Him. He partook of the same flesh and blood as a human being, and so we read that He was “made in the likeness of men” (Phil 2:7) but of course without sin – totally apart from sin. We see also that with His coming into this world of His own creatures, He said “a body hast thou prepared me” (Heb 10:5). In other words it was totally a divine act of God to prepare for His Son a body. Such a body could never know any sin, and He Jesus Christ as Man COULD NOT SIN. As Man on this earth, He had a human nature, but remained God Himself. He never laid aside His Deity.

That Greek word, “paraplesios” occurs only once in the NT at Heb 2:14, and basically means "to be in the same manner nearby" - thus "likewise." According to Heb 2:14, the children, those seen as saved believers in Christ, were of course partakers of flesh and blood and were under death. So why did Christ become Man – take on flesh and blood? In order to die, to accomplish the work of redemption on the cross through death, and so destroy (render powerless) Satan who had the power of death.

Perhaps others have the interpretation of FF Bruce, but it's always best to search the Scriptures to see what THEY say.
Friday, Oct 14, 2022 : 03:53


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